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Test CRISC Dumps Demo - CRISC Detailed Answers

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The CRISC Certification Exam is a comprehensive exam that requires a significant amount of study and preparation. ISACA recommends that candidates have at least three years of experience in the field of information systems and security before taking the exam. Additionally, candidates must adhere to a code of ethics and professional conduct, which includes maintaining their knowledge and skills through ongoing education and training.

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CRISC Detailed Answers | CRISC Valid Braindumps Files

The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) practice questions have a close resemblance with the actual Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) exam. Our ISACA CRISC exam dumps give help to give you an idea about the actual Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) exam. You can attempt multiple Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) exam questions on the software to improve your performance.

The CRISC certification covers four key domains: IT risk identification, IT risk assessment, risk response and mitigation, and risk and control monitoring and reporting. CRISC exam tests candidates' knowledge of these domains and their ability to apply this knowledge to real-world situations. The CRISC certification is highly regarded by employers and demonstrates that an individual has the knowledge and skills required to manage risks associated with information systems. In addition to enhancing career prospects, the CRISC certification provides individuals with the confidence and expertise required to effectively manage information systems risk within their organizations.

Achieving the CRISC Certification demonstrates an individual's expertise in risk management and information systems control, which is becoming increasingly important in today's technology-driven world. Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control certification is recognized globally and is an essential credential for IT professionals looking to advance their careers in the fields of risk management and information systems control. The CRISC certification helps professionals to identify and assess risks, develop effective risk management strategies, and successfully implement information systems controls to mitigate risks.

ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Sample Questions (Q1547-Q1552):

NEW QUESTION # 1547
In response to the threat of ransomware, an organization has implemented cybersecurity awareness activities.
The risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks would be to implement:

A. two-factor authentication.
B. continuous data backup controls.
C. encryption for data at rest.
D. encryption for data in motion.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Continuous data backup controls are the best recommendation to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks, as they enable the organization to restore the data that has been encrypted or deleted by the ransomware without paying the ransom or losing the data. Continuous data backup controls ensure that the data is regularly and automatically backed up to a secure and separate location, and that the backup data is tested and verified for integrity and availability. Two-factor authentication, encryption for data at rest, and encryption for data in motion are not the best recommendations to further reduce the impact of ransomware attacks, as they do not address the recovery of the data that has been compromised by the ransomware. These controls may help to prevent or mitigate ransomware attacks, but not to reduce their impact. References
= CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 207; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 207.

NEW QUESTION # 1548
Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

A. Risk owner
B. Security monitoring operations
C. Impacted data owner
D. System owner

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 1549
Implementing which of the following will BEST help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment?

A. Access controls and active logging
B. Continuous monitoring and alerting
C. Vulnerability scanning
D. Configuration management

Answer: D

Explanation:
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains the consistency and integrity of the IT systems and applications throughout their lifecycle. Configuration management involves identifying, documenting, controlling, and auditing the configuration items, such as hardware, software, data, or services, that comprise the IT systems and applications. Configuration management also involves establishing and enforcing the configuration baselines, which are the approved and authorized states of the configuration items.
Implementing configuration management will best help ensure that systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it will enable the enterprise to verify that the systems meet the specified requirements, standards, and policies, and to detect and correct any deviations or discrepancies. The other options are not as effective as configuration management, as they involve different aspects or outcomes of the IT systems and applications:
* Vulnerability scanning is a process that identifies and analyzes the weaknesses or gaps in the IT systems and applications that could be exploited by threats. Vulnerability scanning helps to assess the security and compliance of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not cover all the aspects or components of the systems, or may not reflect the latest changes or updates of the systems.
* Continuous monitoring and alerting is a process that tracks and reports the performance and status of the IT systems and applications on an ongoing basis. Continuous monitoring and alerting helps to identify and respond to any issues or incidents that affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the systems, but it does not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as it may not prevent or detect the unauthorized or unintended changes or modifications of the systems, or may not provide sufficient information or evidence to verify the compliance of the systems.
* Access controls and active logging are processes that restrict and record the access and activities of the users or entities on the IT systems and applications. Access controls and active logging help to protect and audit the IT systems and applications, but they do not ensure that the systems comply with an established baseline before deployment, as they may not address the configuration or quality issues of the systems, or may not be consistent or comprehensive across the systems. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.1, pp. 156-157.

NEW QUESTION # 1550
A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

A. Customer data custodian
B. Customer database manager
C. Audit committee
D. Data privacy officer

Answer: D

Explanation:
The data privacy officer is the best person to notify in case of a new malware that has severely impacted industry peers with data loss. The data privacy officer is responsible for ensuring that the enterprise complies with the applicable privacy laws and regulations, and that the personal data of the customers, employees, and other stakeholders are protected from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or destruction. The data privacy officer can assess the potential impact of the malware on the enterprise's data privacy obligations and risks, and coordinate the appropriate response and remediation actions. The customer database manager, the customer data custodian, and the audit committee are not the best persons to notify, as they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, and expertise as the data privacy officer in dealing with data privacy issues. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 191.

NEW QUESTION # 1551
An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:

A. segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.
B. risk owners have decision-making authority.
C. process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.
D. senior management has oversight of the process.

Answer: B

Explanation:
According to the 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, risk ownership is best established by mapping risk to specific business process owners. Details of the risk owner should be documented in the risk register.
Results of the risk monitoring should be discussed and communicated with the risk owner as they own the risk and are accountable for maintaining the risk within acceptable levels. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is most important that risk owners have decision-making authority, as this enables them to take timely and appropriate actions to manage the risk and ensure that it is aligned with the organization's risk appetite and tolerance. Without decision-making authority, risk owners may not be able to implement the necessary risk responses or escalate the issues to the relevant stakeholders. Therefore, the answer is D. risk owners have decision-making authority. References = 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, The Importance of Effective Risk Governance in the C-suite - Aon

NEW QUESTION # 1552
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